He said "By myself I can do nothing; I judge only as I hear, and my judgment is just, for I seek not to affirm myself but him who sent me."
Wouldn't this quote invalidate the whole notion of a Holy Trinity?
I figure Hardcore Husky isn't teeming with biblical scholars. But I thought I'd throw this out there.
I don't think it does. While Jesus was here bodily He frequently distinguished Himself from His Father (and from the Holy Spirit). When His disciples asked him about the end of the age in Matt 24 He said, "But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, but My Father only." (v. 36). In John 5:19-20 it reads "Jesus gave them this answer: “Very truly I tell you, the Son can do nothing by himself; he can do only what he sees his Father doing, because whatever the Father does the Son also does. For the Father loves the Son and shows him all he does."
However, there are many times when He seems to equate Himself with the Father. Later in John, in the upper room with the disciples He said, “If you had known Me, you would have known My Father also; and from now on you know Him and have seen Him.”
Philip said to Him, “Lord, show us the Father, and it is sufficient for us.”
Jesus said to him, “Have I been with you so long, and yet you have not known Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; so how can you say, ‘Show us the Father’? Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works. Believe Me that I am in the Father and the Father in Me, or else believe Me for the sake of the works themselves." John 14:7-11.
Paul, in writing to the church as Colossae said about Jesus, "For in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily;" Col 2:9
It seems, as best as I can understand the doctrine of the Trinity, that God is one in one sense, and three in another sense. How that works is beyond me.
He said "By myself I can do nothing; I judge only as I hear, and my judgment is just, for I seek not to affirm myself but him who sent me."
Wouldn't this quote invalidate the whole notion of a Holy Trinity?
I figure Hardcore Husky isn't teeming with biblical scholars. But I thought I'd throw this out there.
I don't think it does. While Jesus was here bodily He frequently distinguished Himself from His Father (and from the Holy Spirit). When His disciples asked him about the end of the age in Matt 24 He said, "But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, but My Father only." (v. 36). In John 5:19-20 it reads "Jesus gave them this answer: “Very truly I tell you, the Son can do nothing by himself; he can do only what he sees his Father doing, because whatever the Father does the Son also does. For the Father loves the Son and shows him all he does."
However, there are many times when He seems to equate Himself with the Father. Later in John, in the upper room with the disciples He said, “If you had known Me, you would have known My Father also; and from now on you know Him and have seen Him.”
Philip said to Him, “Lord, show us the Father, and it is sufficient for us.”
Jesus said to him, “Have I been with you so long, and yet you have not known Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; so how can you say, ‘Show us the Father’? Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works. Believe Me that I am in the Father and the Father in Me, or else believe Me for the sake of the works themselves." John 14:7-11.
Paul, in writing to the church as Colossae said about Jesus, "For in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily;" Col 2:9
It seems, as best as I can understand the doctrine of the Trinity, that God is one in one sense, and three in another sense. How that works is beyond me.
I'm no scholar. You can take that to the bank.
However regarding the bolded part, I thought it included (paraphrasing) "I am in my Father, He in me, and I in you."
Which ultimately comes back to your latter poont about the Devine being a part a part of all three.
Comments
However, there are many times when He seems to equate Himself with the Father. Later in John, in the upper room with the disciples He said, “If you had known Me, you would have known My Father also; and from now on you know Him and have seen Him.”
Philip said to Him, “Lord, show us the Father, and it is sufficient for us.”
Jesus said to him, “Have I been with you so long, and yet you have not known Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; so how can you say, ‘Show us the Father’? Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works. Believe Me that I am in the Father and the Father in Me, or else believe Me for the sake of the works themselves." John 14:7-11.
Paul, in writing to the church as Colossae said about Jesus, "For in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily;" Col 2:9
It seems, as best as I can understand the doctrine of the Trinity, that God is one in one sense, and three in another sense. How that works is beyond me.
However regarding the bolded part, I thought it included (paraphrasing) "I am in my Father, He in me, and I in you."
Which ultimately comes back to your latter poont about the Devine being a part a part of all three.
I personally think the passage makes a case for the central idea in: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Baháʼí_Faith